ACVPM Public Health Administration and Education Practice Exam

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• What is the reservoir host for Ebola virus?
• Which port-of-entry regulation addresses the disposition of animal by-products?
• ___________ are formed in the hopes of capitalizing on the strength in numbers and strengths of each member. This united front is more likely to impress decision makers and the new media
• What risk do calves under 1 month present to the public if allowed public contact?
• Buprenorphine is classified as which schedule of opioid used in veterinary medicine?
• Where is NBAF located?
• What is the major reservoir for rabies on the East Coast?
• What update did the 2018 Farm Bill provide to the Veterinary Services Grant Program?
• Which international agreement governs permits for the trade in endangered species?
• (T/F) A therapy animal has no special rights of access, except in those facilities where they are welcome.
• Which animal was associated with a national Salmonella outbreak from 2008 to 2011?
• What three areas does FDA's Food Protection Plan cover?
• If an entity reports theft or loss of a select agent or toxin to the Federal Select Agent Program, whom do they share this information with?
• In non-psittacine birds, which species are most frequently reservoirs for Chlamydia psittaci?
• All federally regulated slaughter and processing plants are required to have which system in place?
• Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?
• Alimentary toxic aleukia with low-dose chronic ingestion can be caused by which toxin?
• A function of the Select Agent Program is maintaining a national database.
• What percentage of enteric illnesses in the United States annually is attributed to animal contact?
• Parturient cats, kittens, dogs, and other animals have been associated with human cases of Q fever.
• Recommendation for disposition of animal by-products at U.S. Ports of Entry is the responsibility of which agency?
• Which of the following was NOT listed as an indirect exposure pathway in the African Dwarf Frog outbreak?
• What is the purpose of the microbiological performance standards for the reduction of Salmonella and Campylobacter in raw products?
• Salmonella bacteria are shed in animal feces.
• Which ESF provides lifesaving search and rescue resources?
• Acquired resistance is when a bacterium undergoes spontaneous mutation of a gene or horizontal gene transfer.
• The NAVVCB is designed to maintain what kind of countermeasures and capacity?
• Which Mycoplasma species does the National Poultry Improvement Plan seek to eliminate from breeder flocks?
• Which disease is included in the detainee list under the Public Health Service Act?
• Saxitoxin onset window after exposure typically falls within which time range?
• Which organism produces Conotoxin?
• Which entity is primarily responsible for enforcing Select Agent Regulations?
• Which CDC bioterrorism agent class is defined by high threat to public health, high potential for spread or fatalities, and potential for social disruption?
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ideal handwashing stations?
• CDC Bioterrorism class A, B, and C agents are associated with congressional mandates and/or federal regulations.
• Which exposure route is emphasized for Seoul virus handling?
• What does NIH stand for?
• Which disease is most likely after consuming raw or undercooked bear meat?
• Which agency implements and enforces the Humane Methods for Slaughter Act (HMSA)?
• Which agency regulates seafood?
• The first priority of the NAVVCB is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine?
• What is the recommended serology sampling schedule after exposure when monitoring a previously vaccinated animal?
• Which agency regulates liquid eggs?
• What is the typically incubation period for Q fever?
• Saxitoxin accumulates in which organisms most notably?
• The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ______.
• Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (Farm Bill) updated?
• The Veterinary Medicine Mobility Act modifies which major federal act?
• What is the recommended post-exposure management for a currently vaccinated dog, cat, or ferret?
• What is a therapy animal?
• Which statement about hemorrhagic manifestations in Ebola is accurate?
• What is the incubation period for human salmonellosis?
• Which of the following is considered a foreign animal disease in the United States?
• Which agency regulates the importation of birds, including poultry and wild birds?
• To benefit from PREDICT, entry filers must provide which of the following is NOT required?
• Which disease outbreak prompted the formation of the OIE?
• Who typically begins disaster response at the local level?
• Where is the World Health Organization headquartered?
• Under the Bioterrorism Act, which provision assists in tracebacks?
• All commercial wildlife imports require what permits?
• A governor can request presidential declaration prior to executing the State's emergency plan, if he deems it will be overwhelmed
• Which organism is NOT among the four specifically listed in the compendium as shedding during birthing?
• Which of the following is a criteria air pollutant for which the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards?
• In crisis communication, it is important to start gathering feedback and analyze public comments and media coverage.
• Which organizations maintain Tier 1 agent/toxin lists that have enforceable regulations attached to them?
• What is the appropriate treatment for HFRS caused by Seoul virus in humans?
• How do people contract Ebola?
• In the Easter Bunny scenario, egg products are regulated by which agency?
• The PETS (Pet Evacuation and Transportation Standards) Act amended which federal act in 2006?
• Where is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention headquartered?
• The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) is headquartered where?
• In the event of a threat or issue at a facility, including suspicious behavior, what actions should you take and whom should you notify?
• Which agency is primarily associated with foreign animal diseases, animal identification, BSE, brucellosis, scrapie, tuberculosis, import inspection, veterinary biologics, and food security verification testing?
• Which class of FDA recall is issued when there is a high probability that use will cause serious adverse health effects?
• What action did the FDA take in 2005 regarding enrofloxacin in poultry?
• Generic E. coli testing requirements apply to slaughter of what groups?
• NARMS examines foodborne bacteria for genetic relatedness using PFGE and enters into which database?
• Which design element supports hygiene after visiting animals by guiding visitors to wash hands?
• Chronic Q fever endocarditis typically develops after what time interval following an acute infection?
• Which agency is part of USDA involved in the Select Agent Program?
• Who administers the US National Residue Program?
• The collaborative effort of multiple disciplines to attain optimal health for people, animals, and the environment is defined as what?
• The SAFE Act of 2013 prohibits the sale or transport of equines or their parts into or beyond the United States for what purpose?
• Staphylococcal enterotoxin B is associated with high morbidity and incapacitation.
• Guidance 152 addresses antimicrobial drugs used in which animals?
• Which agency is responsible for ensuring that meat, poultry, and processed egg products are safe, wholesome, and accurately labeled?
• Which four criteria does the CDC assess to determine a Select Agent?
• Which is a consideration FDA looks at when approving antimicrobials in animals?
• AVMA wanted this act to be defeated.
• Which Act authorizes the Secretary of Health and Human Services to determine that a public health emergency exists due to a disease or disorder, a significant outbreak, or a bioterrorism event?
• Who issues DEA licenses for veterinarians?
• What type of hypersensitivity reaction is shown by a positive tuberculin test?
• Which set of pathogens are listed as being of particular risk to people exposed to birthing animals or birthing exhibits?
• Botulinum neurotoxin could be disseminated as a military or terrorist weapon via aerosol, or by contamination of water or food supplies.
• What is the maximum time after exposure to administer rabies vaccine to previously unvaccinated dogs, cats, or ferrets?
• In addition to verifying food hazards, FSIS monitors which of the following?
• Why was four inches chosen as the minimum carapace length for turtles that could be sold?
• Which organization has the final authority for classifying a country as free of an animal disease?
• The National Poultry Improvement Plan was originally implemented to eliminate which organism from poultry?
• Civets belong to which family?
• Which option lists the six occupational hazards that dogs working in a disaster zone may experience?
• Which factor in terrarium environments can amplify Salmonella risk?
• FSIS has determined that contamination of poultry carcasses and parts by fecal material and enteric pathogens is a hazard reasonably likely to occur in which type of slaughter establishments unless addressed in a food safety program?
• Which of the following is a data source used in PREDICT screening rules?
• Which statement best describes the primary aim of state police powers in public health?
• Which act, enacted in 1958, provides for humane methods of slaughter?
• The Egg Products Inspection Act was enacted in which year?
• Under the Humane Methods for Slaughter Act, which category is not protected?
• Which hantavirus has demonstrated human-to-human transmission?
• The term emotional support animal refers to animals that provide what benefit?
• Which of the following is not a criteria air pollutant for which the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards?
• Which mosquito species is not a dengue vector?
• Intentional contamination of the food supply could cause which types of significance?
• Which of the following is NOT among the four organisms specifically listed in the NASPHV compendium as shedding during birthing?
• According to the FDA, which of the following is a minor species?
• Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug?
• If a person has exposure to a bat and the bat cannot be captured or tested for rabies, should post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) be given?
• Which statement is true about the Veterinary Feed Directive drugs by October 2015?
• Which product category is covered by the Salmonella and Campylobacter performance standards?
• Which of the following is a reservoir for Chikungunya?
• Which personnel security measure is recommended for access to controlled substances?
• Coxiella burnetii is globally distributed.
• Rodents from Africa or with a native range that includes Africa are restricted from import by which agency?
• The OIE was formed in response to an outbreak of which disease?
• Which wave of the US opioid epidemic was characterized by a rise in heroin overdose deaths?
• Which of the following is a duty of the Select Agent Program?
• What is the single most important prevention step for reducing disease transmission at animal exhibits?
• Which statement about Guidance 209 is true?
• Abrin, while a biotoxin, is also used in cancer research and to make jewelry
• Which agency is not an operating division under the Department of Health and Human Services?
• Which Act governs the processing of wild caught and farm-raised Siluriformes fish for wholesale markets?
• Which statement about Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 hazard is correct?
• Which of the following statements about respirators is incorrect?
• In regards to live animal vaccines, which agency licenses animal vaccines and which agency looks for vaccine reactions at slaughter?
• Fruit bats belong to which family?
• For a person under Active Monitoring for Ebola, if they remain asymptomatic, is exposure to companion animals limited?
• Which two requirements are needed for the movement of dogs across borders or jurisdictions?
• For how long should contacts of a positive Ebola case be monitored?
• Which organism is commonly associated with botulism toxins and is the etiologic agent for botulism?
• Which agency regulates closed-faced sandwiches?
• Which FDA Guidance for Industry addressed voluntary withdrawal of production uses and changed labeling from OTC to VFD for medicated feed products?
• Which facility will replace the Plum Island Animal Disease Center?
• The United States, Mexico, and Canada share a vaccine stockpile for the event of an outbreak of a foreign animal disease
• Which agency regulates in-house rapid Canine Heartworm antigen test kits used by a veterinary clinic?
• In crisis messaging, identifying audience needs helps determine which of the following?
• Which program under the Farm Bill addresses the risk of introduction and spread of animal pests and diseases affecting the livestock and related industries of the US?
• What percentage of human tuberculosis cases are attributed to Mycobacterium bovis?
• Public Health and Medical Services in the emergency support functions is associated with which department?
• Which agency is responsible for controlling the interstate movement of livestock in the United States?
• The ONLY agency present at ALL ports of entry is which agency?
• In the Incident Command System, which position is part of the command staff?
• The One Health approach focuses on the interconnection between which elements?
• What is the most common bacterial cause of foodborne disease in the United States?
• Which agency within the USDA is responsible for veterinary services at ports of entry?
• What is the Farm Bill?
• Which assay is not used to diagnose Chlamydia psittaci in birds?
• Is FSIS inspection for non-amenable species provided on a voluntary fee-for-service basis?
• Which two mosquito species are primarily responsible for transmitting dengue virus?
• Which toxin is one of the deadliest known, with a single gram inhaled capable of killing more than a million people?
• Which of the following is a positive reason to move animals for scientific research?
• Which stage is characterized by proactive risk monitoring and partnerships before an incident occurs?
• The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within which department?
• What exposure pathway is highlighted as a common route for hantavirus exposure from rodents?
• Which agency regulates open faced sandwiches?
• What was the immediate priority of the NAVVCB?
• For Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus, which animal group tends to be the indicator hosts?
• Which of the following is NOT on the CDC list of potential Category B bioterrorism agents?
• Which control method is least preferred for protecting workers from workplace hazards?
• What is the correct sequence of steps from a person eating contaminated food to confirming a case as part of an outbreak?
• Which statement correctly identifies hydromorphone’s scheduling?
• Which term describes a group formed to pool strengths and influence decision makers and the media?
• Is there a vaccine available for Seoul virus in rats?
• What does SPPA stand for?
• Which statement accurately describes the syndrome Seoul virus can cause in humans?
• Which agency approves and regulates human vaccines in the United States?
• Which action is required when a theft or loss of controlled substances occurs?
• What is the causative agent of Chikungunya?
• Ricin and Abrin are both plant based toxins
• What is the major reservoir for rabies in California?
• What action did the CDC recommend for facilities with confirmed hantavirus infection?
• What is the primary purpose of AMDUCA?
• As of March 2021, Haemaphysalis longicornis has been positively identified in which state?
• In serology monitoring after exposure for previously vaccinated animals, what indicates an anamnestic response?
• FDA and CDC fall under what larger agency?
• What is the 1975 turtle ban?
• Which of the following is NOT among the four major bacteria under NARMS surveillance?
• Which publication influenced the passage of meat inspection and food regulation acts in the early 1900s?
• In the Easter Bunny scenario, chocolate candy eggs are regulated by which agency?
• In dengue virus transmission, which two mosquito species are the primary vectors, and what is the genus of the dengue virus?
• What is the primary purpose of the ALERT framework in food defense?
• Which of the following is one FDA policy that has helped combat antibiotic resistance?
• Which United Nations agency focusing on food and agriculture conducts global work and is headquartered in Rome?
• Which statement is true about the scope of the Humane Methods for Slaughter Act regarding birds and fish?
• Which statement best describes the three goals of food defense?
• Which action most effectively improves hand hygiene accessibility in public exhibits?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a foreign animal disease?
• Q fever transmission is primarily through inhalation of aerosols from excreta of which animals?
• What is the Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) primarily used for?
• Sin Nombre virus occurs primarily in which region?
• What four criteria does the USDA assess to determine Select Agents?
• What was the importance of the Sandy Recovery Improvement Act of 2013?
• Which statement is true about Salmonella and turtles?
• Which individuals are at highest risk for chronic Q fever?
• Which organization is commonly associated with USDA's veterinary services for interstate livestock movement?
• Which organization provided training and guidance for healthcare facilities on infection control during the Ebola outbreak?
• True/False: Coxiella burnetii is common in dairy herds and 77-94% of bulk milk tanks are positive in the US
• What is probably the number one agricultural threat to the US?
• Prophylaxis and treatment of asymptomatic individuals with Q fever is recommended.
• Chlamydia psittaci infection in birds can present as:
• Which agency is NOT listed among SPPA collaborators?
• Which category of controls for workplace hazard exposure is considered the least effective at protecting employees against a hazard?
• What does the acronym PAST stand for?
• Under the Animal Welfare Act, which statement is true?
• Which agency regulates the movement of marine wildlife?
• In severe tetrodotoxin poisoning, which of the following can occur?
• The veterinarian may determine that a particular species is not appropriate for an ESA because of potential harm to the welfare of the animal or the suitability of the animal for flying with minimal disturbance to other passengers. This statement is:
• Which work helped initiate funding for Ebola research?
• The 52-week moving window approach is used for evaluation of test results for process control. Which description best matches this approach?
• Which regulatory agencies oversee NexGard (oral flea and tick product) and K9 Advantix II (topical) for dogs respectively?
• What were the three waves of the opioid epidemic in the US?
• Which agency maintains the PulseNet database used for genetic relatedness analyses within NARMS?
• As part of CDC recommendations, how long should quarantined rats be held before reintroduction if negative?
• Routine prophylactic antibiotic treatment for birds against Chlamydia psittaci is
• Can Ebola be transmitted via semen from a man who has recovered?
• The Poultry Products Inspection Act (1957) applies to poultry products containing more than ________% poultry.
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Guidance 213 and feed-use drugs?
• In human testing for Chlamydia psittaci, MIF testing evaluates which antibody classes?
• What is the FDA's role in counterterrorism?
• Which set of factors is consistently associated with foods at higher risk of terrorism?
• What is the primary purpose of health certificates for interstate livestock movements?
• How often is sampling conducted by FSIS for Salmonella and Campylobacter performance standards in raw chicken and not ready-to-eat comminuted poultry?
• One of the five goals of the US National Action Plan for combating Antibiotic Resistant Bacteria (2015) is to strengthen national One-health surveillance efforts.
• Which of the following is a potential negative effect of animal movement?
• True or False: NARMS operates only within the United States.
• Which disease is listed as one that may lead to apprehension or detention to prevent spread?
• Treatment of animals with Coxiella burnetii will reduce shedding.
• Another goal is to improve international collaboration and capacities for antibiotic resistance prevention, surveillance, control, and antibiotic research and development.
• ____________ conducts national studies that provide essential information on livestock and poultry health, and management to decision makers, including producers, researchers, and policymakers
• What does IHS stand for?
• Which organization issued Guidance 152?
• What are the four major bacteria currently under surveillance by NARMS?
• Which treatment in late gestation may help prevent adverse pregnancy events when abortions are occurring due to Coxiella burnetii?
• In the USDA, foreign animal diseases, animal identification, BSE, brucellosis, scrapie, tuberculosis, import inspection, veterinary biologics, and food security verification testing fall under which agency's responsibilities?
• Which of the following does the PETS Act of 2006 require regarding emergency preparedness plans?
• True federal power lies in money (incentive through direct provision and disincentive through taxation).
• Under Guidance 213, which administration routes are regulated for medically important antimicrobials?
• Which of the following best differentiates a therapy animal from an emotional support animal?
• What provided guidance for industry on possible process for evaluating the potential effects of antimicrobial new animal drugs on non-target bacteria, and risk assessment for microbial food safety?
• Which Act amends the Horse Protection Act to designate additional unlawful acts, strengthen penalties, and improve USDA enforcement?
• Which statement about hemorrhage in Ebola is accurate?
• Both APHIS and FSIS fall under which parent organization?
• Brucellosis, Epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringes, E. coli O157:H7, Salmonella, Meliodosis, psittacosis, Q fever, Ricin, Staph enterotoxin B, Typhus fever, and viral encephalitis (EEE, VEE, WEE) are all CDC Class _________ agents?
• What program oversees the possession, use, and transfer of biological select agents and toxins that have the potential to pose a severe threat to the public, animal, or plant health, or to animal or plant products?
• Tularemia is a reportable disease included in the list. Which option correctly lists this disease as the first choice?
• NARMS is a partnership between which three agencies?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic elements of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship (VCPR)?
• Which action reduces pathogen transmission related to bedding and manure in public animal settings?
• EMAC is activated through what combination?
• Zoonotic pathogens are more than three times more likely to be associated with emerging diseases than non-zoonotic pathogens.
• Which laboratory method, alongside clinical assessment, is commonly used to diagnose Ebola?
• Which statement about untreated Q fever is accurate?
• Which agency has the final say for classifying a country as free of an animal disease?
• Which toxin has faster onset of action after exposure?
• The statement 'Vectors such as snails and arthropods may only be imported for scientific research, education or exhibition purposes' is true.
• For dogs, cats, and ferrets that have never been vaccinated, what is a recommended post-exposure management option following a suspected rabies exposure?
• What is the four-inch turtle ban rationale?
• Which of the following is not on the CDC list of potential Category B bioterrorism agents?
• How are humans typically exposed to Conotoxin?
• Which organization would have jurisdiction over commercial ratteries that sell rats over state lines or on the internet?
• What is a reservoir for Dengue?
• Staphylococcal enterotoxins typically take 3-5 days for onset of symptoms.
• Which acronym corresponds to the agency known as the National Institutes of Health?
• Which of the following is NOT a function a veterinarian could perform in a disaster response, based on the listed roles?
• Which agency is known for setting air quality standards in the United States?
• Who regulates the importation of livestock species?
• Therapy animals are typically used in which settings?
• What is the key goal of judicious antimicrobial use in animals?
• Declaration of the Stafford Act triggers what type (source) of assistance?
• Why do you begin an education program after resolution of the crisis?
• In addition to obtaining a permit from the CDC, what other agencies may have requirements regarding the importation of vectors such as snails or arthropods?
• When should an epidemiological investigation into Chlamydia psittaci be initiated?
• Which of the following is a positive reason to move animals that is explicitly linked to public education facilities (zoos, aquariums, museums)?
• Which of the following is NOT recommended to prevent Salmonella from live poultry in the home?
• Shedding of Chlamydia psittaci in birds is exacerbated by which factor?
• If you are discussing clean up and recovery efforts, having an open discussion on what happened, discussing new risk avoidance with public, reinforcing positive images of organizations that helped, and beginning an education program, what stage is this?
• Who creates laws that protect livestock and poultry from contagious and infectious diseases?
• There is no effective treatment to stop shedding Coxiella burnetii.
• The NAVVCB vaccine bank is described as what?
• Which Bioterrorism Act requirement involves notifying before import entries?
• What Act allows people with emotional support animals to live in housing that has a no-pets policy?
• Which agency oversees imports of livestock?
• PREDICT stands for which phrase?
• What factor contributed to the spread of Blue Tongue virus in Europe?
• Which statement best describes factors that drive the spread of antimicrobial resistance?
• What is the purpose of the FDA's ALERT card initiative?
• Which two schedule IV opioids are used in veterinary medicine?
• Which practice is explicitly recommended to reduce pathogen transmission by minimizing stress in animals?
• Which of the following is NOT a core function of public health?
• Which system assists the FDA in making decisions related to the approval of safe and effective antimicrobial drugs for animals?
• The goal of biodefense is to integrate sustained efforts across which communities?
• Which U.S. agency is primarily responsible for public health surveillance and disease control?
• Which statement best describes the FDA's role in counterterrorism?
• Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) is caused by which group of hantaviruses?
• What is the THC content threshold that defines hemp under the 2018 Farm Bill?
• Coxiella burnetii is shed in the milk of infected animals.
• One Health aims to optimize health for which groups?
• FIFRA is the acronym for which act?
• In the concept of the Human-Animal Bond, what does Biophilia refer to?
• Produce is listed as a potential source of Salmonella infection.
• Which drug may be used extralabel in some circumstances in a food-producing animal?
• In the FDA Food Protection Plan, which element involves rapid reaction and effective communication?
• AMDUCA allows extra-label uses of approved animal drugs under what condition?
• There is an antitoxin available for Botulinum neurotoxin.
• Which statement best describes the symptom range for Seoul virus infection?
• Which of the following is a gastrointestinal symptom that is very common in Ebola?
• Only federally inspected and passed products can enter interstate commerce or be exported to foreign countries. Which option completes this statement?
• When are the highest number of Coxiella burnetii organisms shed in animals?
• Ricin is part of the waste mash produced during castor oil production.
• In crisis information management, which timing question helps manage information flow?
• If you want to transport more than six turtles under four inches, or viable eggs, who must you request a permit from?
• Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (Farm Bill) updated?
• Seoul virus tends to be more common in which rats?
• Which act is associated with the inspection of poultry products?
• What is the most common type of natural disaster in the United States?
• Which agency administers and regulates the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)?
• What does FDA stand for?
• What are the three core elements to the FDA's Food Protection Plan?
• Which act requires that eight specific food allergens be listed on product labels?
• Which agency regulates eggs in the shell?
• Salmonella Marina is associated with which animal?
• What Act allows emotional support animals to travel with their owner on an airplane?
• The CDC has regulatory role in outbreak investigations.
• Which bacterium is a significant public health concern tested for under the National Poultry Improvement Program?
• Which organization is within the Department of Interior?
• What type of organism is Coxiella burnetii?
• How do humans typically acquire Coxiella burnetii?
• (T/F) APHIS responsibilities also include veterinary biologics, industrial chemicals, burcelllosis, TB, FAD and reportable diseases, and imported meat and poultry products
• In the Emergency Support Function Annex, which ESF addresses the protection of agricultural and natural resources?
• What product can transmit Coxiella burnetii?
• FDA Import alerts target what products?
• Which statement about Salmonella and turtles is true?
• The National Poultry Improvement Plan targets which Salmonella serotypes in breeder flocks?
• Under FIFRA, which U.S. agency regulates pesticides?
• How can humans most commonly acquire Chlamydia psittaci?
• Saxitoxin is produced by several species of marine and freshwater algae and blue-green algae (cyanobacteria).
• Which data element should be included to enhance surveillance data for reporting rabies cases to the CDC?
• Which organism is NOT among the four specifically listed in the NASPHV compendium as shedding during birthing?
• Which of the following is NOT a minor species according to the FDA?
• Which combination of practices is recommended to prevent Seoul virus introduction into a rat colony?
• Which organism is not included in NPIP testing and monitoring?
• In the hierarchy of controls used to protect workers from hazards, which control method is most preferred?
• Which item is NOT one of the five AVMA core elements of companion animal stewardship?
• Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 is classified as which type of toxin?
• Which ESF coordinates the Federal response to provide medical (including veterinary) and public health services?
• In the incident command system, which role is part of the command staff?
• Which statement best describes biodefense as used in public health?
• In standard HAZMAT protocol, which zone is designated for rest and eating areas?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of FDA's Food Protection Plan?
• Which program update included prioritization for food animal medicine and allowing 11th/12th graders to explore education and career opportunities?
• Which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards?
• Which species typically serves as the amplifying host for Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus?
• Marine biotoxins cause GI and neurological syndromes by predominantly which mechanism?
• In standard HAZMAT protocol, which zone includes the debris field and contamination area?
• Guidance 152 is concerned with the potential impact on human health of all uses of all classes of antimicrobial new animal drugs intended for use in which animals?
• Which agency enforces restrictions on the sale and movement of small turtles within the US?
• Which AVMA core element focuses on surveillance and monitoring outcomes?
• What are the two key principles of Guidance 209 (Judicious use of Antimicrobials)?
• Which ALERT component includes actions such as knowing your suppliers, encouraging suppliers to practice food defense, requesting locked and/or sealed vehicles, and supervising off-loading?
• Which organization is within the Department of Interior?
• Which statement is NOT one of the three organisms accounting for about 78% of illnesses at animal exhibits?
• Which of the following is a recommended approach to decrease negative human crisis behaviors?
• Which of the following is NOT a Schedule II drug used in veterinary medicine?
• Which agency is associated with the NAHLN's outbreak detection and response goals?
• What type of precautions should you take when handling rats known to have Seoul virus infection?
• Which organism is NOT among the four specifically listed in the compendium as shedding during birthing?
• Which statement about biodefense best describes its scope?
• (T/F) Resistant strains of bacteria have a selective advantage in individuals who are taking antimicrobials for other reasons.
• As of March 2021, which state had Haemaphysalis longicornis identified in nature or on animals?
• Which program monitors antimicrobial resistance in enteric bacteria from retail meat?
• Which ALERT component focuses on systems for handling products, tracking materials, secure labeling, and limiting access?
• What does HFRS stand for?
• The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) is headquartered in which city?
• What are the four elements of the Human-Animal Bond?
• What is the major reservoir for rabies in Alaska and central Texas?
• Which APHIS program unit is primarily responsible for international services and facilitating international trade?
• Which option is NOT a rule type enacted by the State Department of Agriculture to protect livestock and poultry?
• Abrin and Ricin exposure signs include fever, cough, and dyspnea. Which is a sign of exposure?
• Which Act amends the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act to prohibit the sale or transport of equines or their parts for slaughter for human consumption?
• The African Dwarf Frog Salmonella outbreak (2008-2011) primarily affected which age group?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a symptom of Seoul virus infection?
• In what year was extra-label use of fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides prohibited?
• An antidote exists for Tetrodotoxin and Saxitoxin.
• Paralytic shellfish poisoning is caused by which toxin?
• Which of the following is a requirement under the Pathogen Reduction final rule?
• Which of the following is one of the three main activities FSIS conducts?
• FSIS inspectors examine which of the following?
• Intrinsic resistance to antimicrobials is when bacteria naturally have structural or functional characteristics that resist activity of a particular antibiotic.
• Which agency regulates wild game and exotic meats?
• For Campylobacter, Category 2 is defined as?
• Which animals are most associated with Q fever outbreaks in veterinary settings?
• Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, and viral hemorrhagic fevers are CDC Class ____ agents?
• Lyme disease is caused by which type of organism?
• Which data element should be included to enhance surveillance data for rabies cases?
• Which of the following is a correct reason resistant strains are concerning?
• Which department houses the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration?
• Hantaviruses affect which of the following groups?
• Which agency has jurisdiction over interstate commerce for non-amenable species such as buffalo, antelope, reindeer, elk, migratory waterfowl, game birds, and rabbits?
• Which of the following is a positive reason to move animals that relates to enhancing genetic diversity in agriculture?
• One Health involves collaboration across disciplines at which levels?
• Which AVMA core element ensures informing clinicians about resistance and optimal prescribing?
• Sin Nombre virus belongs to which genus?
• The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the Department of ______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ______.
• An outbreak of Foot and Mouth Disease in the United States would cause an economic impact of billions of dollars and loss of tens of thousands of jobs in direct employment.
• Which statement best describes FDA's role in pet foods relative to pre-market approval?
• CDC Bioterrorism class ____ agents include emerging viruses, bacteria, and toxins, and could be modified for dissemination due to availability, easy production and spreading, and potentially high infection and/or death rates.
• FSIS considers ready-to-eat (RTE) products with any detectable pathogen to be adulterated. This statement is?
• NAHMS activities are administered by which agency?
• The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the United States Department of which?
• Under the National Poultry Improvement Plan, the Pullorum-Typhoid Clean classification is required for all poultry types except ostrich, emu, rhea, and cassowary. This statement is true.
• The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations has its headquarters in which city?
• As of March 2021, Haemaphysalis longicornis was positively identified in which state?
• Which term describes collective action for the common good aimed at aiding individuals infected or exposed to infectious agents while protecting others from inadvertent exposure?
• What is the primary purpose of an emotional support animal?
• Pasteurizing milk is insufficient to destroy Coxiella burnetii.
• Which disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii?
• What did AMDUCA do for veterinarians?
• Listeria control is part of the written program FSIS inspects for establishments that produce what type of product?
• Approximately how many people are sickened each year with antibiotic-resistant infections?
• What agency regulates movement of marine wildlife?
• What sequence triggers the transition from local emergency management to state/federal support?
• Infant ingestion of honey is a documented Botulinum exposure due to spores that colonize the infant gut.
• If a vaccine is DIVA compatible, what does that mean?
• What is the minimal requirement for controlled substance inventory?
• Domestic sales and distribution of all medically important antimicrobials intended for use in food-producing animals decreased by 33% between 2016-2017.
• Which statement about the four organisms listed in the compendium is true?
• Salmonella shedding sites in dogs and cats?
• Which geographic distribution describes Seoul virus?
• Which statement about the 2012 Infantis outbreak is true?
• Which of the following is NOT among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?
• What are the three parts of the epidemiologic triad?
• Which group of organisms produces Saxitoxin?
• For establishments that export products to foreign countries, who ensures that the requirements of the country are met?
• What is the only purpose that nonhuman primates may be imported into the US?
• How is EMAC triggered?
• Which pathogen is among the three that accounted for about 78% of illnesses at animal exhibits along with E. coli and Cryptosporidium?
• Which policy influence tactic is NOT recommended?
• What type of virus is Ebola?
• What is the primary focus of the 1996 FSIS landmark rule?
• What is the major reservoir for rabies in the central United States?
• What are the three areas of One Health?
• The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government can make and change policy through rulemaking.
• The HHS/USDA Tier __________ select agents present the greatest risk of deliberate misuse with significant potential for mass casualties or devastating effect to the economy, critical infrastructure, or public confidence, and pose a severe threat to public health and safety
• Is it appropriate for a veterinarian to document the owner's disability in the medical record to understand the service animal's trained tasks?
• What are the routes for administering doxycycline to birds?
• What are the most common symptoms of acute Q fever?
• Which organization provides a compendium on Animal Contact in Public Settings?
• RMSF is transmitted by which vector?
• Which Federal agency issues standards and regulations regarding the transportation of hazardous materials?
• Hantaviruses are typically carried by which animals?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as part of the recommended PPE for healthcare workers caring for Ebola patients?
• As part of a ______ the veterinarian provides oversight of treatment, compliance, and outcome.
• Which agency is the regulatory authority for animal feed?
• Which pathogen is tested for by FSIS carcass inspection?
• Which four zoonoses can be transmitted through aerosols?
• What is the long-form title of Guidance 152?
• Which statement about N100 respirators is accurate?
• Which agency regulates heroin?
• The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government effects policy through interpretation of the law.
• What burial practice contributed to challenges in controlling the Ebola outbreak in Liberia?
• In the FDA Food Protection Plan, which element builds safety in from the start?
• Which area is not part of FDA's Food Protection Plan?
• Which item is NOT part of the four requirements of the Pathogen Reduction and HACCP final rule (1996)?
• Coxiella burnetii is endemic to the US, ubiquitous and persistent in the environment, and nearly impossible to eliminate from herd and decontaminate the environment.
• AMDUCA states that it may prohibit an extra-label drug use in animals if it found that such use presents a risk to public health.
• Which of the following is NOT an amenable species requiring FSIS inspection?
• Which Act modified the Controlled Substances Act to allow veterinarians to legally transport controlled substances outside their registered, principal places of business?
• Which agency uses NARMS data to inform approvals of antimicrobial drugs for animals?
• Which hantavirus is responsible for Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) in humans?
• What type of organism is Chlamydia psittaci?
• Which age group of animals often has higher prevalence of Salmonella?
• Which of the following bacteria is NOT part of the four major bacteria under NARMS surveillance?
• Which two agencies regulate the movement and importation of civets and related animals (Family Viverridae)?
• Which statement best describes the clinical signs of human Salmonella infection?
• FSIS considers raw, non-intact beef products adulterated if they contain E coli O157:H7.
• For nonhuman primate imports, which agency's registration carries stringent requirements?
• Which US president founded the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) in 1862?
• All ESAs should be appropriately vaccinated with core vaccines. This statement is:
• When is Seoul virus shedding highest in rats?
• ____________ monitors trends in antimicrobial resistance among enteric bacteria from humans, retail meats, and animals
• What does the FSIS microbiological performance standard verify?
• Which statement describes exemptions for products prepared for human consumption that contain meat or poultry ingredients in relatively small portions or are not considered by consumers to be meat or poultry products?
• What two requirements must a veterinarian fulfill to issue a VFD?
• Under the Clean Air Act, the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for how many criteria pollutants?
• How is Coxiella burnetii transmitted in animals?
• What does ALERT stand for in the ALERT Card Initiative?
• Which statement best describes the scope of the NASPHV compendium?
• Which organization designated hospitals as Ebola Treatment Centers during the Ebola outbreak?
• Antibiotic usage in the absence of ongoing abortions with Coxiella burnetii is warranted.
• Which agency provides a list of diseases of concern, and recommendations regarding transportation and supplies for collection and shipment of specimens and man-made identification devices?
• If an animal is exposed to rabies and owners are unable to provide proof of vaccination, serological monitoring can be performed, but must be done when?
• Tetrodotoxin onset window after exposure typically falls within which time range?
• Which statement about Q fever in goats during outbreaks is true?
• Conotoxin is best described as a toxin that causes diaphragm paralysis by affecting neurotransmitter receptors and ion channels.
• In crisis communication, if you are monitoring for the emerging risks, preparing people for adverse events, changing behavior with likely decrease in harm, setting up partnerships, and doing message development for further stages, you are in the _________________ stage of communication.
• Where does Ricin come from?
• How is Q fever usually diagnosed?
• In standard HAZMAT protocol, which zone is designated for storage and gross decontamination?
• How are people exposed to Tetrodotoxin?
• Conotoxin, Saxitoxin, and Tetrodotoxin originate from which environment?
• Under the Modernization of Poultry Slaughter Final Rule (2014), which poultry group continues to be subject to generic E. coli testing?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for chronic Q fever?
• Which FDA system prevents potentially violative products from being entered into US commerce and may include violative history for commodities, manufacturers/shippers, growers, country of origin, geographic area, and importers?
• What is a common route of transmission of Coxiella burnetii to humans?
• Which agency regulates pesticide residues?
• Why was extra-label use of fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides banned in 1997?
• If resistant bacteria enter the food supply, drugs normally used to treat people infected with those bacteria may not work.
• Which two legal benefits apply to emotional support animals?
• Which organization sets international animal health standards and guidelines?
• Approximately what percentage of OIE countries are considered free of Foot and Mouth Disease?
• Which disease is NOT listed as a reportable zoonotic or vectorborne disease to the Florida Department of Health in the provided list?
• Under FHAA and ACAA, which of the following best describes the scope of protections for ESAs?
• Most nonhuman primate species will require a CITES permit.
• Which three programs did the 2018 Farm Bill introduce or enhance related to veterinary medicine?
• The Select Agent Program requires background checks for individuals who work with select agents.
• What defines a spillover event in the context of Ebola virus?
• The term for Botulinum exposure arising from medical or cosmetic treatment when excessive is
• EMAC has been enacted by all States
• Guidance indicates that treatment times for Chlamydia psittaci in birds may be:
• Which of the following is one of the eight major food allergens?
• Which HMSA-related enforcement role is carried out at slaughterhouses?
• The separation of sick people or animals with a contagious disease from people or animals that are not sick is the practice of:
• What are the three goals for optimizing antibiotic use to reduce resistance?
• Are animals infected with Coxiella burnetii usually symptomatic?
• The Hantaan virus is primarily carried by which rodent?
• The Federal Meat Inspection Act applies to meat products containing more than ____% Meat.
• What does the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) of 1996 do?
• How long should an exposed pet be quarantined?
• What pilot project as part of the 2018 Farm Bill is intended to overcome long-term and high-risk research challenges in agriculture that industry is unlikely to undertake because of technological or financial uncertainty?
• Which program established from the 2018 Farm Bill stated that the Secretary shall maintain sufficient quantities of countermeasures, including contracts for surge production capacity to respond to the most damaging animal diseases, with priority to foot and mouth disease?
• (T/F) Up to 50% of antibiotic use in hospitals is unnecessary or inappropriate.
• What does NARMS stand for?
• The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which of the following animals?
• Staphylococcal enterotoxin B has a high fatality rate.
• Name at least 3 duties of the Select Agent Program.
• For Campylobacter, Category 1 is defined as?
• Q Fever is caused by which type of organism?
• Where is Ebola virus found regionally?
• Which act is focused on preventing contamination and improving food safety through preventive controls?
• AMDUCA amended which act?
• Who must you request an import permit from to import threatened or invasive species?
• True or False: Healthy birds may transmit Chlamydia psittaci.
• Who regulates the movement of rodents intended as animal feed?
• What is the recommended observation period after a rabies booster is given to a currently vaccinated animal?
• Which drug may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal?
• Which time frame is used in the Campylobacter performance category definitions?
• Coxiella burnetii, the agent of Q fever, can be transmitted by ticks.
• Which of the following lists accurately names the four major bacterial species monitored by the National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System (NARMS) in retail meat surveillance?
• Why are turtles a high risk for Salmonella in young children?
• Which of the following is NOT recommended to prevent Seoul virus introduction?
• When are people most receptive to relevant education in a crisis?
• Which serotype was linked to a dry dog food outbreak in 2012?
• Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, emotional support animals have the same rights as service dogs.
• The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice?
• If rabies vaccination is delayed after exposure, what adjustment to quarantine might be considered?
• Seoul virus is a type of which family of viruses?
• What is the most common presentation of chronic Q fever?
• Which virus is considered a select agent?
• Which of the following is a listed symptom of Seoul virus infection?
• Which statement correctly describes ozone in the upper atmosphere versus ground level?
• Salmonella Typhimurium outbreaks occurred in which setting between 1999 and 2000?
• What is an emotional support animal (ESA)?
• Which food should be cooked to the highest minimum internal temperature before consumption?
• What is the official tuberculin test for captive cervids?
• Which organism is explicitly listed in the compendium as shedding during birthing?
• Hand sanitizers are useful when it's not possible to provide running water, but they are ineffective against what pathogen?
• Which species of mosquitoes is a known vector for Chikungunya virus?
• What are the most common reservoirs for Chlamydia psittaci?
• Chronic Q fever is rare and develops in what proportion of acute cases?
• Which of the following is a potential negative effect of animal movement on agriculture?
• Which statement is true regarding the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?
• What are the most documented clinical effects of Q fever in goats and sheep?
• Which is cited as a source of ideas for new policy?
• Which statement best describes FSIS inspection coverage for meat and poultry products?
• Which agency is responsible for bottled water safety and quality?
• The first priority of the NAVVCB is to increase stockpile of which vaccine?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six animal issues to be aware of in disaster response?
• Which country hosts the headquarters of the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)?
• In the incident command system, which officer is primarily responsible for safety?
• Which statement best describes how EMAC facilitates licensing during emergencies?
• Which product is regulated by the FDA?
• What is the causative agent for Psittacosis in humans?
• Which of the following is NOT a EPA criteria air pollutant under the Clean Air Act?
• What is the goal of the Strategic Partnership Program Agroterrorism (SPPA) Initiative (2005)?
• Which serotype has been associated with outbreaks at veterinary facilities (1999-2000)?
• During the 2017 Seoul virus outbreak, which organization developed guidelines for workers such as those in veterinary clinics, animal shelters, and pet stores?
• Which pet products have been involved in Salmonella outbreaks?
• Who regulates the importation of birds, including poultry, pet birds, and wild birds?
• Which of the following is NOT a fecal-oral transmission route for animal-associated pathogens?
• One of the goals of the National Action Plan is to accelerate development and use of rapid and innovative diagnostic tests for identification and characterization of resistant bacteria.
• Which action was among the CDC recommendations during the Seoul virus outbreak?
• Which prescription pad practice is recommended?
• Under the Stafford Act framework, who has the authority to declare a major disaster or emergency?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor associated with foods at higher risk of terrorism?
• Which of the following pairs of bacteria have among the highest reported resistance percentages to principal clinical antibiotics?
• What is one feature of Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B that makes it a serious biological threat agent?
• During an outbreak, which action reduces transmission?
• How are service animals defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act?
• Periodically evaluating the effectiveness of your security management system, performing random food defense inspections, maintaining records, and evaluating lessons learned are part of which ALERT section?
• If an establishment fails to meet the performance standards, FSIS takes which action?
• What two agencies manage the Select Agent Program?
• Which legislation prohibits individuals from knowingly slaughtering a dog or cat for human consumption in the United States?
• Onset of Staphylococcal enterotoxin B illness is typically within 4-10 hours after exposure.
• T/F: Dogs and cats that are overdue for rabies vaccination but do not have any documentation of previous vaccination are still treated as overdue animals with regards to post-exposure management.
• Which USDA service administers and enforces the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program?
• What is the onset of action for Botulinum neurotoxin?
• Emotional Support Animals are permitted to fly in the cabin of a commercial aircraft free of charge under which act?
• Who enforces the Animal Welfare Act?
• Which practice can help reduce pathogen shedding due to stress in animals?
• Which of the following best describes appropriations in relation to law making?
• Does the National Poultry Improvement Plan include a program to eliminate Avian Influenza from breeder flocks?
• Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome is caused by which group of hantaviruses?
• What class of recall is initiated when there is a high probability that use will result in serious adverse health effects?
• Hand sanitizer stations should contain at least __________% alcohol.
• Which ESF addresses the basic needs of people and their pets during evacuation, care, sheltering, and post-disaster response?
• Where is the official tattoo applied to permanently identify a RB1-vaccinated heifer?
• Under the Modernization of Poultry Slaughter Final Rule (2014), establishments that slaughter poultry other than ratites are responsible for testing to determine microbial control strategies to prevent enteric pathogens and fecal contamination that will be most effective.
• Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?
• NARMS collaborates with antimicrobial resistance monitoring systems in other countries to harmonize testing and reporting.
• After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishes a practice in state B. To be able to issue health certificates on livestock movements in her new state, the veterinarian must:
• Name a disease that individuals may be apprehended, detained, or conditionally released to prevent spread under the Public Health Service Act?
• Where should birthing animal exhibits be located?
• Who is responsible for compensating the assisting state for any expenses incurred when EMAC is requested?
• NARMS contributes to international harmonization of testing and reporting through collaboration with antimicrobial resistance monitoring systems in other countries. Which statement best describes this role?
• FSIS declared Listeria monocytogenes an adulterant in ready-to-eat products in which year?
• Which of the following is a positive reason to move animals that relates to promoting human-animal bonds with pets and families?
• Which methods are used to diagnose Chlamydia psittaci in birds?
• Among weather-related hazards, which type is responsible for the greatest number of annual human deaths?
• What is the primary route by which humans spread Ebola to other humans?
• Which agency is responsible for administration and enforcement of the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program?
• What is the problem with acute Q fever in pregnant women?
• Which measure was required by the Pathogen Reduction and HACCP Final Rule of 1996?
• Which animals are principal sources of Coxiella burnetii infection in humans?
• Which act authorizes the Secretary to regulate to prevent the spread of communicable disease between states?
• Which act allows the President to declare a 'major disaster' or 'emergency' for an event that overwhelms state or local governments?
• Which agency's mission statement is to safeguard the health, welfare, and value of American agriculture and natural resources?
• Is human Psittacosis considered a nationally notifiable disease?
• Which statement best describes the Import Safety Action Plan?
• Ingestion of saxitoxin can cause numbness of the oral mucosa within how long?
• Hantaviruses are primarily associated with infections transmitted from which type of animal?
• Which of the following is a higher risk pet for Salmonella?
• Each hantavirus tends to have a single rodent species as its reservoir.
• Who should supervise children when performing cleaning tasks after contact with risky animals?
• Which action is NOT recommended to prevent Seoul virus introduction?
• Which statement best describes Tier 1 agents?
• Which scenario best describes extralabel drug use?
• Where should habitats and their contents be cleaned, if possible?
• Resistance can occur without prior exposure to an antibiotic.
• The president can declare an emergency (Stafford Act) without a request if there is a 'federal primary responsibility'
• Which exemption threshold applies to cooked poultry meat?
• What is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci in birds?
• FDA considers rats infected with Seoul virus as adulterated feed.
• Prior to putting animals in public settings for exhibits, they should be screened for specific diseases. This statement is:
• According to CDC criteria, which factor is considered when determining a Select Agent?
• Which agency within USDA licenses animal vaccines and which agency looks for vaccine reactions at slaughter?
• Which of the following is one of the four rule areas the State Department of Agriculture uses to protect livestock from contagious diseases?
• What practice contributed to GI illness in employees during a veterinary facility outbreak involving kittens or cats?
• Which department houses the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration?
• The NADPRP is both proactive and preventative.
• NASPHV stands for which organization?
• Which role in the ICS is responsible for disseminating information to the public and media?
• What describes the Good Importer Practices guidance from the FDA?
• Which Culicoides species is limited to North Africa and the Mediterranean region?
• What are the four core actions according to the CDC for fighting antibiotic resistance?
• What is the US National Residue Program designed to do?
• What is the purpose of a Food Safety Assessment (FSIS)?
• Why is Coxiella burnetii nearly impossible to eradicate from a farm?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a state police power function in public health?
• Which ALERT component is primarily involved in generating and maintaining reports about the security of products under your control?
• Which statement correctly lists the USDA criteria used to determine Select Agents?
• Which facility design factors can lead to an increased risk for disease transmission in animals in public settings?
• In crisis messaging, which question addresses what the organization is doing to fix the issue?
• Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 may be found in which contexts?
• True/False: In order to issue a VFD, the veterinarian does not need a veterinary client patient relationship.
• What is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci in humans?
• BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with:
• Which of the following is a recommended control measure for Chlamydia psittaci infection among birds and humans?
• (T/F) Service dogs are permitted in accordance with the ADA to accompany a person with a disability almost anywhere the general public is allowed.
• The NAHLN funding guidance specifically aimed to help the network achieve what capabilities?
• What is the treatment of choice for Q fever?
• Which agency is responsible for setting National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
• Which serologic test may be used to detect Ebola antibodies as part of the diagnostic workup?
• Under what circumstance are small turtles (less than 4 inches) allowed to be sold?
• Which measure did the CDC implement in the United States during the 2015 Ebola outbreak?
• Are animals usually asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella, but can also have Salmonellosis?
• In the Easter Bunny scenario, which combination of agencies with regulatory items is correct?
• FSIS considers raw, non-intact beef products or components of these products to be adulterated if they are found to have what pathogens?
• What does APHIS stand for in the context of USDA agencies involved in animal health?
• Which statement best describes the presence of federal agencies at ports of entry?
• Have dogs and cats been reported to be clinically affected by Ebola virus or able to spread it?
• There is no legal basis for Federal health care or public health.
• Which agency regulates advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol?
• Which term describes antimicrobials that are important for human medicine?
• What role does the FDA have in implementing the 2002 Bioterrorism Act (3)?
• What is the proper post-exposure management for dogs and cats with documentation of previous vaccination, but overdue?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a thing to avoid when providing risk or crisis communication to the public?
• People working with which animals may be at higher risk of MERS-CoV?
• Which of the following is a source data for PREDICT screening rules?
• Besides fever with pneumonia or hepatitis, which complications can occur with acute Q fever?
• Which set of agencies regulates the movement of dogs and cats in the United States?
• Which of the following is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure?
• Who is widely credited as the father of modern epidemiology?
• If several people near each other develop fever, cough, and pulmonary edema, what bioterror attack might have occurred?
• Which early warning system, created in 2003, is designed to detect the intentional release of select aerosolized biological agents?
• What risk do goats present to the public if allowed public contact?
• In serologic diagnosis, which immunoglobulin test is most informative?
• For Campylobacter, Category 3 is defined as?
• Which option is NOT listed as a factor influencing zoonotic disease transmission in public animal settings?
• True or False: Backyard flocks have led to more frequent Salmonella outbreaks associated with live poultry.
• Which agency performs outbreak surveillance and public education but is non-regulatory?
• In crisis communication, rapid communication with audience, use of empathy and concern, giving public tasks to decrease harm, general description of what occurred and expected outcome, and directing where to go for new information is part of what stage of communication?
• Which organization is within the Department of Interior?
• What is the purpose of the Veterinary Services Grant Program?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of Chlamydia psittaci infection in birds?
• What is the incubation period for Ebola?
• Which of the following is the most common agent reported in laboratory-acquired infections?
• Which statement best describes ground-level ozone in relation to smog?
• Which species is most likely to serve as an amplifying host for Foot-and-Mouth Disease?
• Which of the following is NOT a documented route of Botulinum toxin acquisition in humans?
• What is one way Coxiella burnetii can be INDIRECTLY transmitted?
• Which act allows tribal government chief executives to directly request a disaster or emergency declaration from the President?
• Which legislation extended prohibition on animal fighting to United States territories in parity with the Animal Cruelty Enforcement Act?
• Health care providers and public health officers are among the first lines of defense in biodefense. Which option best reflects this role?
• Which AVMA core element includes written clinic SOPs for antibiotic use?
• Which ALERT component focuses on verifying and securing suppliers and incoming materials?
• Which tick species follows a one-host lifecycle?
• Which toxin is a cone snail neurotoxin?
• Under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act, which of the following animals is not protected?
• What is the significance of funding toward the NAHLN in the 2018 Farm Bill?
• Which Campylobacter category is defined as highly variable process control?
• Ricin is incredibly heat tolerant.
• Which act established federal meat inspection and grants FSIS authority to inspect meat across interstate commerce?
• Which condition can increase shedding of Salmonella in animals?
• Which ingredient is included among the eight major allergens that must be listed on products?
• Who is authorized to write an emotional support animal prescription letter?
• Which of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?
• Which act governs the federal regulation of pet foods, according to the FDA?
• Which option best describes the symptom range of psittacosis in humans?
• The best disaster preparedness starts at what level?
• NAHMS is best described as which of the following?
• In the outbreak investigation sequence, which event occurs after Salmonella is identified?
• The 1975 turtle ban is codified in which CFR Title?
• What federal agencies collaborate with states and private industry as part of the SPPA Initiative?
• As part of FDA Guidance for Industry #209, use of medically important antimicrobials in food producing animals will be phased out for production uses, but protected for which uses?
• Does the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act apply to poultry slaughter?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of negative human crisis behavior?
• Which class can spread with moderate ease, cause moderate disease with low death rates, and requires specific lab capabilities and CDC disease monitoring by the CDC?
• Which of the following is a strategy to stop human-to-human transmission during an Ebola outbreak?
• Define food safety.
• Amblyomma americanum is a vector for which pathogen among the following?
• Which agency restricts the domestic sale or movement of turtles under four inches in length?
• The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 created which two U.S. Federal agencies?
• Occupational illness of Psittacosis in the United States has been documented in association with which birds?
• Which is a typical effect of emergency declarations?
• Evaluating the Safety of Antimicrobial New Animal Drugs with Regard to Their Microbiological Effects on Bacteria of Human Health Concern (2003) is also known as?
• True/False: It is illegal to prescribe antibiotics in feed off-label.
• True/False: The VFD is a state regulation.
• Infant botulism is caused by the ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores, while botulism in older children and adults is most commonly caused by the ingestion of toxins produced by Clostridium botulinum.
• During the same outbreak, which organization developed guidelines for human/rat testing, control and prevention?
• Which USDA agency is responsible for ensuring the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• Who leads the Import Safety Action Plan?
• For unvaccinated animals exposed to rabies, what are the quarantine durations?
• Which four major bacteria are currently under surveillance by NARMS?
• Which statement best describes the governor’s authority during a public health emergency?
• What condition marks the end of a national Ebola outbreak?
• Dengue is transmitted by which of the following mosquito genera?
• When developing your message for the public in a crisis situation, which question should you ask yourself?
• What liability protections do officers and employees from another state providing aid have?
• Has human-to-human transmission of psittacosis occurred?
• What would constitute as a Select Agent or Toxin release?
• Eggs are listed as a potential source of Salmonella infection.
• Which statement is true about treatment after exposure to tetrodotoxin and saxitoxin?
• Which sequence correctly assigns regulatory roles for baby chicks, shell eggs, egg products, and chocolate candy eggs in the described example?
• What is the difference between a Tier 1 agent and Class A agent?
• In crisis communication planning, which question should be clarified?
• Which statement best describes intrinsic resistance?
• As part of a public health emergency, which actions can a governor, in consultation with the department of Health Direction, authorize?
• The separation of sick people or animals with a contagious disease from those that are not sick is called what?
• What is the correct approach to burial practices to prevent transmission during Ebola outbreaks?
• Red Cross shelters allow pets.
• What does OSHA stand for?
• What risk do chicks present to the public if allowed public contact?
• What is the purpose of stool sample collection in suspected Salmonella infection?
• Define food defense.
• In terms of routes of exposure, which of the following is not a described route for Chlamydia psittaci infection in humans?
• Which agency regulates baby toys?
• Which control measure is specifically recommended for birds that have frequent public contact, such as in schools or educational facilities?
• The World Health Organization is headquartered in which city?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as part of the recommended PPE for healthcare workers caring for Ebola patients?
• (T/F) Chronic Q fever is the most common form of Coxiella burnetii
• What event triggers access to FEMA resources by state and local emergency management?
• Which of the following was NOT listed among major CDC field activities in Liberia?
• Which of the following is NOT a higher risk pet for Salmonella?
• Guidance 152 had an assessment of the effect of transmission of ____________ bacteria of human health concern
• Which hazard-control option is often relied upon but provides the least protection against hazards?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between isolation and quarantine?
• What is the purpose of the Endangered Species Act?
• _________ is responsible for certifying that a foreign meat and poultry establishment is operating under an inspection system equivalent to the US system before they can export their product to the United States
• Which act authorizes the Environmental Protection Agency to set maximum tolerances for pesticides used in or on foods or animal feed?
• Which item is NOT part of the recommended PPE for handling Seoul virus-infected rats?
• Which agency has been delegated authority for controlling interstate movement of livestock in the United States?
• For antibiotic use, what was a major barrier for practitioners to conduct a culture and sensitivity test?
• Which statement about policy influences is false?
• If foot and mouth disease were introduced in the United States, which of the following would be two large impacts?
• Which of the following is a function a veterinarian could perform in a disaster response?
• Which agency certifies organic products?
• The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice?
• Which action is essential to prevent Ebola transmission in healthcare settings?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention practice for Salmonella from live poultry?
• What Salmonella serotype is shed from iguanas?
• Which Culicoides species contributed to the northward spread of Blue Tongue virus in Europe?
• Which acronym corresponds to the agency known as the Food and Drug Administration?
• Nipah virus and Hantavirus are examples of CDC class _________ agents
• What are two pathways to antibiotics contaminating the environment?
• In the Easter Bunny scenario, shell eggs are regulated by which agency?
• Which three drugs were already approved as Veterinary Feed Directive drugs, and therefore were the only ones affected at the time of the VFD final rule in October 2015 (updated VFD process)?
• Which of the following is a requirement under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?
• Which trio of pathogens was targeted for reducing illnesses from USDA regulated products under the FY 2018-2022 Strategic Plan Goal 7?
• A line of pigs genetically modified to lack detectable amounts of alpha gal on the surface of their cells received regulatory approval for use in the food supply by which agency?
• Under the 2018 Farm Bill, hemp is exempt from the Controlled Substances Act. True or False?
• Which animals are primarily associated with Seoul virus as hosts?
• Which agency is primarily responsible for overseeing import controls related to endangered species permits?
• When cleaning bedding from rats with known or suspected Seoul virus, you should spray disinfectant, let sit 5-10 minutes, double bag waste, and wear appropriate PPE.
• The FDA believes what pathway is the most significant exposure pathway to bacteria that have emerged or been selected as a consequence of antimicrobial drug use in animals?
• Which statement accurately describes liability protections in the context of state aid when there is suspicion of misconduct?
• Which preventive measure is recommended for pet rat owners to reduce hantavirus infection risk?
• Rodent-to-human and rodent-to-rodent transmission of hantaviruses can occur via which mechanisms?
• When is a previously vaccinated animal considered currently vaccinated if it is overdue for a rabies booster, including the one-year booster?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of FSIS field employee?
• Which statement about FDA pet food pre-market approval is true?
• Diacetoxyscirpenol T-2 is produced by which organism?
• Which AVMA core element includes appointing a program lead and access to resources and specialists?
• Which turtle species is most frequently reported in Salmonellosis outbreaks?
• Which of the following is NOT a CDC criterion for assessing a Select Agent?
• True or False: Sick animals, animals with loose stools or diarrhea, and venomous or otherwise dangerous animals are poor choices for public contact.
• The exposure risk associated with animal birthing events is relevant to which activities?
• Which measure helps prevent bedding from spilling out of pens into public areas?
• In USDA, which agency's responsibilities include assisting with tracing of recalled products in emergencies, assisting with inhuman transportation issues; providing a list of diseases of concern, recommendations regarding transportation and supplies for collection and shipment of specimens and man made identification devices; notifying appropriate agency of outbreaks of animal diseases and any imported meat and poultry or egg that do not meet requirements
• Why is a VFD not a prescription?
• Which is more potent, Abrin or Ricin?
• (T/F) Untreated Q fever has a high mortality rate (>50%)
• NARMS monitors trends in antimicrobial resistance among foodborne bacteria from what 3 things?
• The NASPHV Compendium provides measures to prevent disease associated with animals in public settings. In which setting is this compendium intended to guide practices?
• ___________% of acute Q fever cases are asymptomatic
• In crisis communication, when the public is more knowledgeable on the subject, you continue to reduce risks, you contradict rumors, start feedback process, continue giving the public tasks, and informed decision-making is done by the public, what stage of communication is this?
• The Egg Products Inspection Act applies to what types of egg products?
• Is the statement 'The choice of port of entry is not crucial because the appropriate authority can inspect them wherever they arrive' true or false?
• Which toxin is a mycotoxin produced by Fusarium spp and associated with Alimentary toxic aleukia?
• Which statement best describes Seoul virus shedding duration after infection?
• The Federal Emergency Management Agency falls under which U.S. Federal executive department?
• Which agency is NOT an operating division under the Department of Health and Human Services?
• Which birds are classic members of the psittacine group?
• To import or move bats interstate for scientific research, education, or exhibition purposes, which agency supplies the permit?
• The majority of turtle-related Salmonellosis affects which age group?
• What does NARMS do?
• Repopulation of facilities is allowed after thorough cleaning.
• What tests are used to diagnose Chlamydia psittaci infection in humans?
• To receive federal inspection, an establishment must receive an official Grant of Inspection. Which option lists the required elements?
• Which mode of Ebola transmission is specifically listed as sexual contact?
• Development of HFRS associated with Seoul virus occurs in more than 60% of cases.
• Where does Abrin come from?
• Which of the following options correctly lists the three standard HAZMAT zones?
• Which of the following is not one of the eight major food allergens required to be listed on product labels under FALCPA?
• Ingestion signs of Abrin/Ricin toxicity can include which of the following?
• Pasteurization of milk destroys Coxiella burnetii.
• Slaughter of catfish is regulated under which act?
• How long can it take for a Salmonella infection to be confirmed as part of an outbreak?
• In the Easter Bunny scenario, baby chicks are inspected by which agency?
• What is the regulatory status of the Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)?
• What did the Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards (PETS) Act of 2006 do?
• BioWatch was created in which year?
• During direct active monitoring, who should care for dogs or cats?
• Which of the following was NOT part of CDC's United States measures during the 2015 Ebola outbreak?
• Who has the primary authority over animal movement issues into and within States?
• Which agency is responsible for drinking water safety and quality standards?
• What statement best describes the relationship between ESAs and ADA service dogs?
• Which law requires listing eight major food allergens on packaged products?
• What Guidance restricted the use of medically important antibiotics in food and water and therapeutic purposes only, and require authorization from a licensed veterinarian?
• What is the most common reason for a food product recall?
• __________ communication is used to prevent an adverse event from occurring.
• Which of the following is a positive reason to move animals focused on conserving and restoring wild populations?
• In the 2012 pet food outbreak, the majority of dogs and cats owned by case patients were mostly healthy.
• Under the LOOK component, which practice helps protect product labels?
• What does AMDUCA stand for?
• Which of the following is one of the four organisms specifically listed in the compendium as shed during birthing by goats, sheep, or cattle?
• Staphylococcal enterotoxin B can be disseminated via which routes?
• Which of the following is a recommended tactic for citizens to influence policy?
• In humans, Sin Nombre virus infection is associated with which clinical finding?
• Which statement about emotional support animals is correct?
• Which option is NOT a main characteristic of animals that make them good social supports?
• Which act authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to facilitate a grants program to assist victims of domestic violence and allows for restitution to include veterinary services relating to care for a pet, service animal, emotional support animal, or horse?
• What have been some negative effects of fraudulent service animals?
• Which animal is least likely to show clinical signs when infected with Foot-and-Mouth Disease?
• Which of the following acts, enacted in 1946, is listed among acts giving FSIS power to inspect meat, poultry, and processed egg products?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a barrier to effective One Health?
• Which organization runs the PREDICT system (Predictive Risk-based Evaluation for Dynamic Import Compliance Targeting)?
• Which of the following is listed as an animal issue to be aware of in disaster response?
• Who must authorize the use of medically important antibiotics under Guidance 213?
• Are mosquitoes vectors for Ebola virus?
• How long are controlled substance records required to be kept?
• Which Staphylococcal enterotoxin is most concerning for use as a bioweapon?
• Which of the following is NOT responsible for the disposition of animal by-products at U.S. ports of entry?
• What is the only place where federal agencies do NOT tend to defer to state and local agencies regarding animal movement/importation?
• Staphylococcal enterotoxin B morbidity and incapacitation rates high; fatality not necessarily high.
• Which facility design measure best reduces pathogen transmission by creating physical barriers between animals and visitors?
• Which statement best describes Seoul virus infection in rats?
• Which rodent serves as the reservoir for Sin Nombre virus?
• Which of the following statements is true about the four organisms and the compendium?
• What statement best describes the difference between a decision and a policy?
• Which publication helped spur the ban on DDT in the United States?
• SARS-CoV-2 is a Select Agent.
• How is Seoul virus diagnosed in humans?
• Which of the following statements best describes a chronic Q fever outcome?
• Which agency's strategic plan uses an integrated systems-based One Health approach to minimize the risk of pest and disease events to protect the national food supply?
• Under the 2018 Farm Bill, hemp is defined as Cannabis sativa L. or any part of that plant (including seeds, derivatives, extracts containing THC less than 0.3%) and is exempt from the Controlled Substances Act. Which statement best describes this provision?
• If a farm is experiencing an outbreak, it is recommended to quarantine and/or euthanize the infected animals.
• Which animals are the maintenance hosts for Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus?
• What are four schedule II drugs used in veterinary medicine?
• Hantaan virus infection is commonly associated with pathology in which organ?
• Which statement about Seoul virus shedding in rats is true?
• Under the Public Health Service Act, enforcement can include which tool?
• BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with:
• Which of the following represents the potential consequences of deliberate contamination of the food supply?
• Which agency is responsible for grading of fish and seafood?
• Which statement about animals that shed potential pathogens is true?
• Which agency is responsible for building NBAF?
• The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one of the following animals?
• Who regulates open faced sandwiches?
• FSIS issued its landmark 1996 rule focusing on prevention and reduction of microbial pathogens on raw products. What is the name of this rule?
• ____________ communication is used when an adverse event has occurred to decrease the severity of the outcome.
• NARMS stands for which of the following?
• Why is documentation not required for service animals?
• Which three environmental air parameters are commonly monitored in a disaster zone?
• Which of the following is a possible serious infection associated with Salmonella infection?
• Which agency is responsible for meat and poultry inspection in the United States?
• In the FDA Food Protection Plan, which element involves risk-based inspections and testing?
• What is the reservoir for Seoul virus?
• Which agency handles import permits for potentially endangered species?
• Why did so many health care workers (over 500 cases) get infected in the 2015 African Ebola outbreak?
• How many major allergens are required to be listed on products?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the epidemiologic triad?
• The (legislative/executive/judicial) branch of government's chief function is to make laws.
• What is a "dual use" bioterrorism agent?
• Which agency is responsible for building the NBAF facility?
• Which agency has the mission to safeguard the health, welfare, and value of American agriculture and natural resources?
• Which of the following are three drivers of antimicrobial resistance?
• Egg Products Inspection Act enforcement is primarily the responsibility of which agency?
• Which ALERT component covers background checks, identifying who belongs in the facility, and restricting access?
• Which statement about FSIS inspection requirements at slaughter facilities is true?
• What is the primary purpose of Guidance 213?
• Which product would be exempt from FSIS inspection due to low meat content?
• Infected rodents shed hantaviruses through which routes?
• The Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (1978) applies to what animals
• Which of the following is NOT among the factors that encourage the spread of antimicrobial resistance?
• Which Guidance defined the definition of medically important antimicrobials?
• How did the 2018 Farm Bill amend the Bioterrorism Protection Act of 2002?
• MRSA can be transmitted in both directions between humans and animals.
• To which ear is the official tattoo applied for a heifer vaccinated with RB1?
• Which statement about botulism is incorrect?
• Who must importers of nonhuman primates register with?
• Conotoxin is a toxin that affects neurotransmitter receptors and ion channels, leading to diaphragm paralysis and respiratory arrest.
• True or False: The NPIP includes a program to eliminate Avian Influenza from breeder flocks.
• After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishing a practice in state B must issue health certificates only if they are: